Does taste has to be universal?

In my opinion Hume did not exactly answer if taste was really universal to me taste does not has to be universal. Because every single one of us (humans) we are different in many ways for us to say taste is something with all experience in the same way, but we all know that is not true it's far from being reality. For something to be universal I feel we have to think the same thing about the specific taste at the same and we have to experience the same reactions.

To me taste can be universal in a perfect society like The Republic as Plato was intending to bring the perfect pieces to create the perfect society. Taste is one of those things we want to experience it in different ways, so it can be unique to everybody. Also is hard to define what exactly is taste? many of us confuse taste with something similar for example taste can bring us together, but never keep us together in the other hand reason brings us together and keep us together. 

Taste is everywhere

I know this is not the best example basketball can show us great example of taste. For example in the video below one play can change the game also it give you the opportunity to win or lose the game. Basketball players are not afraid of any moment, so I feel this a pretty good example what is a taste for winning?

  

Response to TA's question 3

I think if the Iliad and Odyssey had been written not thousands of years ago, but in this day we would show the same passion for it. It does not matter when it was written if something is meant to be good it will always be good no matter time. I feel anybody that has read any of those pieces of literature would be sure to say they would make it in anytime or place. It would be hard for anybody to question whether good pieces of literature would not be successful at any specific time.

It can be easy to say if we were literal would have trouble even passing the publishing stage. I don't think everybody in the world would be literal at the same time, so in this case they would be very successful at any specific time. In case like this one I always think if something was good back then it will still be good now.

Q&3

 If, as Hume claims, there is a "natural equality of taste," so that "all sentiment [taste] is right," how can he claim further that the "principles of taste are universal"?

According to Hume there’s a natural equality of taste, so that every sentiment is right. The principles of taste are universal in the words of Hume we can debate how they are not? Most important since nobody thinks the same we have different opinions for any question etc. we have different emotion which makes us react differently to Hume claims. Do not think there really is a natural equality of taste, because how can be sure there’s one. Natural things are not easy to identify which mean it can be hard to prove principles of taste are universal.

Principles are set by us since we all think differently principles vary from person to person. There are many things we have to take in consideration to claim things like Hume is trying to explain. Taste is very important we tend to rely for lots of things in our daily lives. Sometimes we can take it to a level where we think is a natural quality part of life. I feel the natural equality of taste can be determined by how we approach principles of life. 

In my opinion I don’t think all sentiment is right because it vary from situation to situation. It’s hard to think principles of taste are universal considering nobody thinks alike it comes down how you can express your taste for things that you consider important to you.  It’s better assume we can get the natural equality of taste comes to us, so that most sentiment can be right at the moment.